Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 09:20
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Is visiting holy shrines (dargahs) or graves haraam in Islam?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What is the reason for the high rate of unmarried individuals in America, particularly among males?
There's no rule.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.